The questions in the first section are worth 4 points each; the questions in the second section are worth 15 points each. Total time for the exam is three hours.
Leasing. (If you buy the machine, you pay out now and can deduct diminishing fractions of the purchase price from pre-tax income over the next five years. If you lease it, you deduct the lease cost from pre-tax income every year. The latter option will always save you more tax than the former.)
Leasing. (If you buy it, you deduct a diminishing fraction of the purchase price from your pre-tax income every year. But your pre-tax income grows with inflation, while the purchase price is fixed. If you lease, on the other hand, your lease cost grows with inflation, so the size of the deduction you can make from pre-tax income grows at the same pace as inflation.)
Advantages: income is taxed at the corporate rate (20% for a small company, 50% for a big one), which will be less than the individual rate if income is high. If you take your share of the company's growth as an increase in stock value rather than as dividends, you can choose to sell stock when your income from other sources is low (e.g. while you're yachting round the world), and pay relatively low captital gains taxes.
Disadvantages: Your dividend income gets taxed twice, once for the corporation, once as part of your personal income.
See Lecture 5: 5. Rates of Return*
See Lecture 1: 1. Introduction
This question is a bit ambiguous, as we don't specify when in the year you get the $1,000 in the case of discrete cash flow. If you get it on January 1, the discrete flow/continuous compounding gives you the most; if you get it on Dec 31, continuous cash flow, continuously compounded, gives you the most. The two `annually compounded' options give you the least.
This is a case for the `Rule of 72': at an interest rate of i%, your principal doubles in 72/i time periods. Hence, in this case, it quadruples in 144/4 = 36 time periods.
The capitalised cost of an infinite series of payments is the present worth of that series; if one payment in the series is A and the interest rate is i, the capitalised cost is A/i.
You would prefer the straight-line method; both methods eventually allow you to deduct the whole cost of the purchase from pre-tax income, but the declining balance method takes longer to do so, so the present worth of the series of deductions is less.
B. (As the MARR increases, the importance of future paybacks diminishes the further in the future they are.)
See Lecture 17: 16. Monte Carlo Method
End of Year | Alternative A | Alternative B |
(Actual Dollars) | (Real Dollars) | |
1 | 120 | 100 |
2 | 132 | 110 |
3 | 148 | 120 |
4 | 160 | 130 |
The inflation rate is 6% per year, and your real MARR is 9%. Which alternative would you choose?
The key point here is remembering the difference between real dollars and actual dollars. Your best policy is to deflate the actual dollar amounts for A. Once you've done this, you can see that they're larger than the corresponding amounts for B every year except Year 4. It is thus not actually necessary to calculate the present cost of each option; A clearly costs more, so B is the better choice.
End of Year | A | B | C | D |
0 | -100 | -20 | -120 | -30 |
1 | 40 | 6 | 25 | 6 |
2 | 40 | 10 | 50 | 10 |
3 | 60 | 10 | 85 | 19 |
The following limitations hold:
Your MARR is 15%.
List all feasible combinations of projects, and identify the best combination.
The feasible combinations are {A}, {A,B}, {A, D}, {C}, {B, C}. The present worth of a combination is the sum of the present worths of the projects involved, so you just need to calculate the present worth of each project. All the present worths except A turn out to be negative, so you should just do A.
The machine falls into Asset class 8: declining balance depreciation at 20% per annum. Your company pays taxes at 50%, and your after-tax MARR is 8%. What is the after-tax equivalent annual cost of the machine?
The best approach is to figure out the present worth of the purchase price and salvage value, convert this to an equivalent annual cost, then add on the operating expenses, which are already expressed as an equivalent annual cost:
The present worth of the purchase price is 9600 * CCTF, where CCTF is the capital cost tax factor. The present worth of the salvage is 1600 * CCTF * (P/F,0.08,12), (We multiply the salvage income by the CCTF because we have to deduct this income from the balance on the company books for asset class 8, and thus we lose the future tax deductions we could otherwise have made against this balance.)
Now we multiply this present worth by (A/P,0.08,12) to get an equivalent annual cost, and add to it 2,100 * 0.5, representing the after-tax cost to us of the annual operating costs.